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I'm guessing there were either rent deposits, OR the closing happened mid-month and the rents paid to the original owner were pro-rated thru escrow.
(That's my first mind-reading attempt for the week )
I'm guessing there were either rent deposits, OR the closing happened mid-month and the rents paid to the original owner were pro-rated thru escrow.
(That's my first mind-reading attempt for the week )
I'm confused. If he purchased the property in 2018 why would he be purchasing future rental income in the following year? As a side note, please don't use all caps. It's hard for us old people to read.
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