A client is entering into a shared equity agreement with a company called Hometap. Hometap is buying a 10% share of clients primary residence. They pay client upfront and then collect 10% of proceeds when client sells home. There are no loan or interest payments made by client. It sounds to me like a cap gain on the sale of 10% of the home with basis prorated to 10%. Does this sound right to anyone? Also, do you think I can take 10% of the primary residence exclusion since they would qualify for it if this were were a normal sale? I've never seen this before so thanks for any help.
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That is what it sounds like to me too ... a sale of 10% of the property.
However, the exclusion is NOT limited to $25,000/$50,000 (10%). You can take the full exclusion up to $250,000/$500,000. However, whenever the other 90% is sold, the combined total of all partial-interest sales is limited to $250,000/$500,000. So if you exclude $100,000 now, then when the other 90% is sold the maximum exclusion would need to be reduced by $100,000.
That is what it sounds like to me too ... a sale of 10% of the property.
However, the exclusion is NOT limited to $25,000/$50,000 (10%). You can take the full exclusion up to $250,000/$500,000. However, whenever the other 90% is sold, the combined total of all partial-interest sales is limited to $250,000/$500,000. So if you exclude $100,000 now, then when the other 90% is sold the maximum exclusion would need to be reduced by $100,000.
Hometap from what I can see takes their share "PLUS" a % of the sale price. So, is it really worth it?
A reverse mortgage sounds like a better idea, based on the limited info provided.
What's your client trying to achieve?
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