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Level 3
March 27, 2022
Solved

Cost Basis

  • March 27, 2022
  • 20 replies
  • 89 views

2018 Mr Smith buys house for 88k in his own Trust's name. 

2019 Mr Smith transfers house from Trust and records deed in his name AND add's my client's name to Deed.  

2021 Mr Smith dies.  Client finds out his name is on deed after death.  Client sells house for 140K.

Client receives 1099-S.  What should I be using as cost basis on the sale? 88K?  FMV at date of death?

Never had this situation before and need some help and guidance.

Many Thanks!!!

 

 

 

 

This topic has been closed for replies.
Best answer by qbteachmt

"How do you know? Did you see the Inventory?"

This property was only asset NOT in Mr Smith's estate.  He quick deeded it out of his estate and into him and my client's name in 2019.  My client had ZERO to do with the estate or sale of any other assets.

There is apparently no way for client to find out if Mr Smith paid or didn't pay gift tax. He did not gift anything to anybody before his death.  He just did the quick deed on this property.

No clue what to use for FMV on this sale. <sigh>

"Why, me Lord" by Shaggy

 

 

 


"He did not gift anything to anybody before his death."

Yes, he did. You need to look at Timing.

"Client finds out he owns property next door to Mr Jones after Mr Jones dies. Is it a gift?"

It was Gifted in 2019, according to what you are telling us.

"He just did the quick deed on this property."

Yes, that is how he gifted Value to your client.

"No clue what to use for FMV on this sale."

You had no sale, in 2019. There is no applicability of FMV.

"Joint w/ right of survivorship? Yes"

Then your client inherited 1/2 at the FMV, and it seems the client's sale is timely to the DOD, so use that sale price for FMV.

"My client had ZERO to do with the estate or sale of any other assets."

You keep stating things on both sides of the fence, and either they both don't apply, or they both do apply. That is confusing us.

"Who knows what Mr Jones meant it to be."

It is either Sale or Gift, in 2019.

"Is there issue with gift tax in this situation? Now it's not just a BIG shock, he has to pay gift tax on it because Jones neglected to do so?"

Gift tax is the responsibility of the Giver.

You've brought a lot to the topic that does not apply. You need to narrow down to what applies and drop all this other stuff. There is a lot of protesting going on, for who didn't know what, and that doesn't matter. What IS and what legally exists, is what matters.

The probate and estate documents will be helpful. The legal papers matter. What someone else remembers or thinks or intended, does not matter.

20 replies

sjrcpa
Level 15
March 27, 2022

I assume it was a Grantor (Living) Trust?

Since your client did not know about it, Mr. Smith may have added your client's name "for convenience". Then your client gets dod FMV as basis.

On the other hand, if Mr. Smith intended to make a gift to your client, more info is needed.

How was it titled? Joint w/ right of survivorship? Tenants in common? Transfer on death? How much of the property was included in Mr. Smith's estate? What was shown on the Probate filings? Your client's basis may be Mr. Smith's basis, or it may be a portion of Mr. Smith's basis and a portion of the dod value.

The more I know the more I don’t know.
Mary MAuthor
Level 3
March 29, 2022

How was it titled? Quick claim deed 2019 no cost just transfer.

Joint w/ right of survivorship? Yes

Tenants in common? No.  Joint Tenants with right of survivorship.

Transfer on death? IDK? Right of survivorship.

How much of the property was included in Mr. Smith's estate? None

What was shown on the Probate filings? No probate for this property.

Your client's basis may be Mr. Smith's basis, = 88k purchase in 2018?

or it may be a portion of Mr. Smith's basis and a portion of the dod value (135k). Not sure what to use still as cost on sale. Am I missing something obvious here?

Help!  Thanks SOOOOO much!!  

Mary MAuthor
Level 3
March 30, 2022

No, that is not what JTWROS means.  Code Section 2040 means that the ENTIRE property would be included in his taxable estate (not probate estate, which is irrelevant  here).  That means that the only number needed for cost basis is FMV at date of death.  This is a simple question but the path to its answer here has been littered with red herrings, and @Mary M 's client appears still at risk of paying too much tax.  


"That means that the only number needed for cost basis is FMV at date of death."

Sorry, to cause all these words in this here thread, Folks!!!! Red herrings? yuk I do not even like fish 😉

Thank you, thank you, thank you!!!!

 

The End.