C-Corporation distributes rental house (market value $100K, fully depreciated) to sole shareholder and closes the corp. It has a 40K NOL from prior years. Can I say that shareholder buys the house for $100K so as to make use of the 40K NOL. Or can I say the value of the distribution to shareholder is $60K?
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The liquidating distribution of the house is done at FMV
The liquidating distribution of the house is done at FMV
Here is some light reading to help you to say the right thing https://www.thetaxadviser.com/issues/2012/sep/casestudy-sep2012.html
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