Client is divorced but has lived with x husband ever since the divorce ( 2009) . They have lived in the same home the whole time. They wan to sell the house that is in wifes name. If they get remarried before they sell the house can they take the $500k exclusion?
But I'm fascinated at this situation. Was the original divorce due to not liking each other, or was it just for suiting some other purpose (such as better tax outcome)?
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