Welcome back! Ask questions, get answers, and join our large community of tax professionals.
cancel
Showing results for 
Search instead for 
Did you mean: 

Can a house owned for 3 years but on rent for 2 years (then sold) qualify for sale as residential home?

singh
Level 7

Client bought a residential home in June 2016 , lived in it for 6 months and then gave on rent from 01/01/2017 until he sold it on 09/30/2019.

Can he now regard the sale as personal residential home and avoid the capital gain tax?

0 Cheers

This discussion has been locked. No new contributions can be made. You may start a new discussion here

1 Best Answer

Accepted Solutions
Just-Lisa-Now-
Level 15
Level 15

If they lived in it for 24 months out of the last 60 months before sale, it can qualify for IRC121, there will still be some depreciation to recapture from the time it was a rental though.


♪♫•*¨*•.¸¸♥Lisa♥¸¸.•*¨*•♫♪

View solution in original post

0 Cheers
3 Comments 3
George4Tacks
Level 15
Why did they only live there 6 months? Move? Divorce?  That may impact the answer.

Answers are easy. Questions are hard!
0 Cheers
Accountant-Man
Level 13
No. You've answered it yourself. The law says owned AND lived in it for 24 months. They didn't,  so unless they moved for a certain specified reason for leaving, no exclusion.
** I'm still a champion... of the world! Even without The Lounge.
0 Cheers
Just-Lisa-Now-
Level 15
Level 15

If they lived in it for 24 months out of the last 60 months before sale, it can qualify for IRC121, there will still be some depreciation to recapture from the time it was a rental though.


♪♫•*¨*•.¸¸♥Lisa♥¸¸.•*¨*•♫♪
0 Cheers