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Who is the lender-S corporation or shareholder?
Why isn't it portfolio income?
Why do you think it could be passive income?
"from another s-corporation owned by the same individual"
What you have is a Shareholder. S Corps don't have "owners" per se. It would also matter if this is the Sole Shareholder for each entity, and the type of "at risk" losses from that other S corp.
What needs to be determined if you are asking about 1120S or 1040, really. That's why it's important to know if the lender is the Person or the S Corp. Because the person can have lent funds personally that they took as a distribution or a loan from the S Corp to fund that lending. This all matters.
Hello, my apologies for not clarifying. I am asking for the 1040 tax return for 2019. I do see my question may have been a little off as well though.
Basically, S-Corp 1 lent to S-Corp 2, on which the interest is earned. The individual taxpayer in question is a partial shareholder for S-Corp 2. Their spouse is a full shareholder for S-Corp 1. They file jointly and live in an equitable distribution (non-community property) state.
Hope this helps!
Hello, my apologies for not clarifying. I am asking for the 1040 tax return for 2019. I do see my question may have been a little off as well though.
Basically, S-Corp 1 lent to S-Corp 2, on which the interest is earned. The individual taxpayer in question is a partial shareholder for S-Corp 2. Their spouse is a full shareholder for S-Corp 1. They file jointly and live in an equitable distribution (non-community property) state.
Hope this helps!
You're asking if some or all of the interest paid by 2 to 1 constitutes self-charged interest to the shareholder of 1? I think you're going to have to do the research there; I sure as heck wouldn't rely on some internet rando for such a fact-specific issue.
If it constitutes self-charged interest, does it increase the shareholder's basis and at-risk in 1? Sure, same as any other item of income or gain. Its characterization as portfolio or passive under the self-charged interest rules doesn't affect that conclusion.
Does an increase in the shareholder's basis and at-risk in 1 affect that shareholder's ability to use prior suspended (for lack of basis and/or at-risk) losses in 3? No, basis and at-risk are specific to a given entity.
IF it constitutes self-charged interest and your clients materially participated in the S-Corp, you'll need to compute the limitation for §1.1411-4(g)(5) offline.
This exception should be reported on Line 7 of F.8960 and the entry is found under Taxes > Other Taxes > Schedule J, Recapture, Other Taxes. On the input screen, scroll down to the Net Investment Income Tax (Form 8960) section. On the line for Other modifications to investment income [Adjust], enter the amount you computed offline.
Did I misread the question so badly that I gave a totally irrelevant response or did the OP change the post to focus on something different?
I was quite certain that the post was originally about self-charged interest and NIIT....
Well, it is from 2020, so I would be surprised if it got changed. Perhaps you were reading two similar topics and replied inside the wrong one?
Ahhh, thanks for pointing that out. I think you're right. 😅
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