I have a client who co-owned property with a family member (50/50), and received full title after that family member's death. To compute the stepped up basis of the property for it's subsequent sale, I have adjusted only the inherited 50% basis per below. Does this make sense?
Client | Family Member | Total | |
Original Cost | 90,000 | 90,000 | 180,000 |
Value when inherited | 112,500 | 112,500 | 225,000 |
Home Basis For Sale | |||
Cost | 90,000 | 90,000 | 180,000 |
Stepped up basis | 22,500 | 22,500 | |
Basis after inheritance | 90,000 | 112,500 | 202,500 |
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I agree with the logic of your calculation. If there was any prior depreciation taken, I'd keep the two halves as separate assets, but that's a matter of personal preference. If the decedent had any passive activity losses suspended with respect to the property, there are sometimes some weird adjustments to basis, too.
Yes
I agree with the logic of your calculation. If there was any prior depreciation taken, I'd keep the two halves as separate assets, but that's a matter of personal preference. If the decedent had any passive activity losses suspended with respect to the property, there are sometimes some weird adjustments to basis, too.
Except that I believe in CA(and maybe other community property states) the inheritor gets a step up for 100%. Although that might only apply for married couples.
You only get community property treatment if the property is held as community property. I don't think there are any states which permit non-spouses to hold property as a community.
"Family member" could include spouse, but probably doesn't here.
If there was no depreciation, maybe it was just raw land. If it was a second home, how much of the selling expenses would you allow?
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