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Sale of personal home by a Trust

jesdq1
Level 4

Can a loss on the sale of a personal house (home of decedent and in the trust) be passed on to the beneficiaries on the K-1s? The FMV of house, selling price, and expenses of sale generates a loss. Or, because the home was the primary residence of the deceased, does the loss stay with the Trust and not passed through to beneficiaries?  

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sjrcpa
Level 15

No it does not.

The more I know, the more I don't know.

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18 Comments 18
sjrcpa
Level 15

Is this a final trust return?

The more I know, the more I don't know.
jesdq1
Level 4

yes

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sjrcpa
Level 15

Then everything passes out to the beneficiaries on the K-1s.

The more I know, the more I don't know.
jesdq1
Level 4

Thank You.  So, it is not relevant that the house sold was the primary residence of the decedent? 

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sjrcpa
Level 15

Sold after death, right?

Did anyone live in it after grantor's death?

Trust was of a kind that the house got a step up to date of death FMV?

The more I know, the more I don't know.
jesdq1
Level 4

Sold after death?   Yes

Did anyone live in it after grantors death?  No  

Not sure if I understand the third question. "Trust was of a kind that the house got a step up to date of death FMV? " Are there certain trusts that do not allow a stepped-up cost basis?  It was a revocable trust. Thank You

   

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sjrcpa
Level 15

Yes there are certain trusts and transfers thereto where there is no step up.

Sounds like you have a plain vanilla Revocable/Living/Grantor Trust where the assets get a step up upon the death of the Grantor.

After death, the assets are deemed to be held for investment, in the absence of other facts saying they are not.

The more I know, the more I don't know.
jesdq1
Level 4

It is my understanding that irrevocable trusts do not allow the stepped-up basis, I was not aware that other kinds of trusts do not allow a stepped-up basis.  You are correct I have a revocable trust. The fact that the house was the personal residence of the grantor...does that have any effect on the stepped-up basis? Thank You    

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sjrcpa
Level 15

No it does not.

The more I know, the more I don't know.
jesdq1
Level 4

Thank you for your help 

sjrcpa
Level 15

You're welcome.

The more I know, the more I don't know.
fwcurley
Level 1

What if the house was sold to one of the beneficiaries? Can he and/or the other related beneficiaries claim  the loss? 

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BobKamman
Level 15

Maybe.  The answer would rely heavily on "facts and circumstances."  First question, but not the last, would be whether the beneficiary had been living there already.  

fwcurley
Level 1

Yes, he was living there with his mother, the owner of the trust, until she passed. His siblings did not live there. 

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BobKamman
Level 15

I would find it difficult to claim that a loss was caused by an arm's-length transaction.  

qbteachmt
Level 15

"he was living there with his mother, the owner of the trust, until she passed. His siblings did not live there"

Then he bought out the other owners at what got determined as FMV, right? Maybe it was at a discount (he lived there already, inconvenient for the others to try to market the property, etc), but that's not really a loss to him or the others.

It's a stretch to expect you could buy your own residence from your siblings at a reduced price and have everyone claim it as a tax loss.

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fwcurley
Level 1

They haven't done it yet, but he is buying it from the trust for the full assessed value. The loss would come from the closing costs, Then the trust will distribute the proceeds to the 4 siblings. Another question has come up. Since the trust is irrevocable, stepped-up basis might not apply, and nobody knows the mother's basis since the parents built the house themselves in the 1950's. It's assessed at $290,000 now.

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sjrcpa
Level 15

Also consider whether related party rules would preclude claiming a loss.

The more I know, the more I don't know.