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    IRA

    chimnu786
    Level 1

    My client was married and was co-signer with her husband on the house,  now she is single,  withdrew some money from her IRA account and used as down payment towards the house she bought.  Will this be considered first time home buyer? Her realtor told her that she does not have to pay the extra 10% penalty, she is only 52.  

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    7 Comments 7
    Just-Lisa-Now-
    Level 15
    Level 15
    does she still own the house with the ex?

    ♪♫•*¨*•.¸¸♥Lisa♥¸¸.•*¨*•♫♪
    jeffmcpa2010
    Level 11

    You used the term "Co-Signer" which is normally not an owner, but an additional guarantor of a debt.

    Is this the correct term or was she actually a "Co-Owner and Co-Borrower".

    This might be a case where the difference in the above terms matter.

    (EDITORIAL COMMENT) Realtor's (And many other professions) should not give tax advice. If you accept tax advice from one, make sure to get it in writing, so their liability insurance will pay when the advice turns out to be incorrect. Especially when they are giving the advice in a manner to entice you to enter a transaction.

    chimnu786
    Level 1

    No they are divorced.  Her name is not on his house papers anymore.

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    IRonMaN
    Level 15

    Hopefully the realtor checked with his barber before he gave that advice 😬


    Slava Ukraini!
    chimnu786
    Level 1

    Sorry, it's Co-Owner. 

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    IRonMaN
    Level 15

    "Her name is not on his house papers anymore."

    So this isn't the first home she bought?


    Slava Ukraini!
    jeffmcpa2010
    Level 11

    I think you just answered your own Question - She was a prior owner?