Again per attorney, original owner will lend the new "partnership" the money to open a new location. The new member has to forgo his draws up to the amount of that loan before he can "take" a draw based on profits.
So on the original owners 1040, the money received has no basis. He says "it's the right to come in on a good business". Are we talking "goodwill" here?
Thank you.
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You really need to get the answer to this from the attorney and the paid tax professional that is involved. To me, your description makes no sense. It really started to sound like a sale of a partnership interest which may or may not have basis, but then some other right comes into play.
If you are a paid preparer, get a really large retainer before taking this mess on.
You really need to get the answer to this from the attorney and the paid tax professional that is involved. To me, your description makes no sense. It really started to sound like a sale of a partnership interest which may or may not have basis, but then some other right comes into play.
If you are a paid preparer, get a really large retainer before taking this mess on.
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