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@judys3 wrote:

 I have sold those assets for the amount of the notes taken over.  

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In most cases for this scenario, that isn't the correct way to do it.

Unless the contract specifically states otherwise, you should allocate the purchase price (the assumption of the loans) between ALL assets, not just the ones that had a loan.

For example, let' say there was a total of $1000 of loans that were assumed.  That was secured by 2 out of 5 assets.  That $1000 should still be allocated between all 5 assets (based on the proportion of FMV of each to the total FMV), not just the 2 assets.