TaxGuyBill
Level 15
12-07-2019
06:24 AM
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Interesting. I was about to argue that is because that one was held in "tenants by the entireties" (which may be treated differently than regular joint ownership), but then that case cited Rev. Rul. 74-209, which seems like the IRS even says it is allowable.
Does anybody have Rev. Rul. 74-209 in full?
Does anybody have Rev. Rul. 74-209 in full?