Hello Community, 

Hoping you all can provide insight and verify my suspicions on this one. 

My client, age 57, inherited 1/3 of his father's 401k. Some background on my client's father, he was age 83 at the time of his death; however, he was still working and contributing to the 401k plan. Therefore, his father, even though he was past the required beginning date, was not taking RMDs because he was still working at the time of his death

My client was a designated beneficiary of the 401k by his father at the time of his passing, and has since taken the 401k and rolled it over to an inherited IRA. 

My understanding, from Fidelity, is the following: 

10-year rule for inherited IRAs

If the original owner of your inherited assets passed away before they began taking required minimum distributions, you can elect to transfer inherited assets to an inherited IRA in your name and fully withdraw the account down to zero by the end of the year including the 10th anniversary of their passing. This option allows you to decide how much and how often you withdraw from the account over the course of the 10-year period. As long as the inherited IRA has been fully depleted by the end of the applicable 10-year period, withdrawals (or lack thereof) during that time are up to you.

https://www.fidelity.com/learning-center/personal-finance/retirement/non-spouse-IRA

With that being said - I think my client does not need to take an RMD from his inherited IRA, and can elect the 10 year rule, is my understanding correct?