DixieL
Level 1
 
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RCBCPA
Level 3
Over Kill:  My take is to continue depreciation of the property unless the land value is large. Not worth the effort or cost to amend.  
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PhoebeRoberts
Level 11
Level 11
Really overkill: Are you required to file a Form 3115?
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rbynaker
Level 14
I've done a 3115 in the past for these.  Changing from an impermissible method (depreciating land) to a permissible method (not depreciating land) seems a bit odd.  I'm not sure it's the right way to do it, but my problem was I'm not willing to sign a return with land depreciation on it.
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itonewbie
Level 15
I'd agree F.3115 seems to be the way to go.  Once the basis for land has been depreciated for more than 1 year, an (impermissible) accounting method is deemed to have been adopted.  You may not, therefore, simply amend the last 3 years' returns to retroactively change an accounting method.
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Still an AllStar
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TaxGuyBill
Level 15

Viewpoint #1:  You are incorrectly depreciating land.  The way to correct prior returns is by using Form 3115 on the current year return.  The repayment of the over-claimed depreciation would either be on the current year return or spread out over 4 years.

Viewpoint #2:  You are depreciating too large of a Basis for the house (the 4562 only showed ONE asset being placed in service, not the land).  IF the taxpayer wants to do it, you can amend the last 3 years to correct those years.  For the current year, depreciate the home using the proper Basis (Form 3115 is not required to change that) and enter the "prior depreciation" that was actually claimed in the prior years.  At whatever point the property is sold, there will be a larger amount of Unrecaptured Section 1250 Gain due to the over-claimed depreciation.


Both are probably valid viewpoints.  Unless there reasons to do it differently, I lean towards #2 (partly because I'm lazy and try to avoid Form 3115 :smiley:).


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