Hi there,

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Cheers!

P.S. In this case order does not matter, but be very careful about what is trying to be accomplished. Seek some professional help before Mom gets her mammary gland stuck in a wringer. 

Mom doesn't have a basis of $50k if you sold it to her for $250k. The house doesn't have Basis. People have Basis.

Im thinking there are 2 different houses involved...mom's house that she paid 50k for, and the sons house that he wants to sell to mom.....but maybe Im wrong.

Ah, a chain of events. Do you think this is yet another person trying to meet the non-existent requirement of reinvesting your residence's proceeds into the next residence purchase? You know...another rule that hasn't applied for a generation? In other words: the sequence does not matter, because there is no rule like this.

I was thinking that too.  But I couldn't really tell from the question.

I was even thinking of replying with a comment on Section 1031 transactions and the related party rules, but then I caught myself.  Thanks for helping to set me straight. 🙂

I'm starting to like this new message board think.  I thought they shut me off.

P.S.  Sorry for hijacking your reply!