Bill 8
Level 2

Client has a rental property (house) in MD which loses money. Never had to pay state tax before this year. Did they change the law? If it loses money, why do they have to pay tax there?

0 Cheers
George4Tacks
Level 15

In all likelihood it is because you coded some other income to that state. Look at the form closely and see what income is showing up for MD.


Answers are easy. Questions are hard!