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The US social security income is still reportable as taxable income on the F.1040 even though the income as described in Article 18(1)(b) is excepted from the saving clause under Article 1(5)(a). Article 24(3) is the mechanism that is employed to eliminate US tax due on the otherwise taxable US social security income. In other words, it should be taken care of through FTC on F.1116 and treaty disclosure would be required.
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You think part of an authoritative legal document is superfluous, but want to interpret a completely non-authoritative Publication to do it differently???
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SMH...
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Since there is no clear regulations or guidance that explicitly instructs taxpayers to simply report $0 as taxable social security benefits on Line 20(b) F.1040, I would follow the text of the treaty article to the tee if your client is claiming treaty exemption.
If the taxpayer were a nonresident alien, it would have been possible for the individual to certify his/her foreign status and claim for treaty benefits to the SSA, in which case, an SSA-1042S would be issued with the final withholdings, where applicable, and the taxpayer would not otherwise have to file a US return if he/she has no other US-ECI and all the US taxes owed had been properly withheld.
In terms of treaty-position disclosure, I agree that none would be required so long as it is taken care of through income re-sourcing on F.1116, which must be computed separately and is excepted under §§301.6114-1(c). The reason these exceptions exist is, in part, because there are corresponding information return filing requirements (e.g. F.8233 for dependent personal services, 1042-S for FDAP, etc.). In the absence of these information returns, there would need to be proper disclosure somehow or it will likely trigger a tax notice from the IRS.
I tend to be in the conservative camp but would be happy to learn from you and others, provided there are solid technical citations for the alternative reporting position.
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On page 6, column 1, How to Report Your Benefits, very last line "Benefits Not Taxable" which runs to the top of the next column, "If you are filing Form 1040..., report your net benefits on line 20a... Enter -0- on line 20b." This to me is VERY clear and VERY explicit guidance. Since none of the benefits are taxable (due to the treaty), this is what I would do.
The next section you cite "How Much is Taxable" starts, "If PART of your benefits are taxable" (again, my emphasis). Since NONE is taxable, I believe the entire following set of instructions does not apply.
I might, as a precaution, attach a statement to the tax return, explaining why I put -0- on line 20b.
Please do reply. As I stated at the outset, I appreciate your thoughts. Incidentally, have you ever come across this situation with any of your clients? This is obviously my first time, and I do want to get it right.
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I also called Intuit help on how to get the software to do this. The man I talked to said there is no "button" to tell the software to put the zero in - I'll just have to override.
And to anyone following this conversation - be advised that Ireland is one of only eight countries with which the US has this arrangement. Canada is one of the other seven. Mexico is not.
Thanks again for all your thoughts on this. I've enjoyed our conversation.
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Why would it be nontaxable?
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Slava Ukraini!
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Take a look at the avatars here and you should recognize who that is.
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I checked on our tax treaties with a few other countries with this situation and they all had the US citizen paying taxes on US Social Security on their 1040 but they did not have to pay US taxes on the Social Security from the country where they are a resident. The Philippines is one example.
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