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A rental property mortgage was refinanced and the closing costs were rolled into the new loan. So the taxpayer paid nothing at closing but their monthly mortgage payments are higher. Those closing costs will be deducted as mortgage interest when paid and not added to the basis of the rental property, correct?
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even though the costs haven't technically been paid yet? I'm sorry, I'm spacing right now.....
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They are part of the new loan ------ technically they are paid.
Slava Ukraini!
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Jeff has it correct (of course :-). Your client 'borrowed' the money to 'pay' the closing costs.....it's just that the transaction was only on paper, no actual exchange of cash. Look at those costs carefully to make sure there aren't any prorations that might be immediately deductible (property taxes & insurance come to mind) and that none of them are actually impounded items (again, property taxes & insurance come to mind).
