- Mark as New
- Bookmark
- Subscribe
- Permalink
- Report Inappropriate Content
Best Answer Click here
- Mark as New
- Bookmark
- Subscribe
- Permalink
- Report Inappropriate Content
S corps don't have owner's draw, but they could have distributions. If he only took 6K in wages, that really doesn't sound like a reasonable wage. You need to pay a reasonable wage before you can take out distributions. You really need to determine if you should go back and amend payroll tax returns to show the "draw" as wages, because that's what they were.
Slava Ukraini!
- Mark as New
- Bookmark
- Subscribe
- Permalink
- Report Inappropriate Content
Thank you again.
Last year was their first year of profits and towards the end of the year he finally took my advice to get on W2 but it was late in the year. I understand completely and will discuss the determination with the client. But could you answer this for me even for future reference when there is one shareholder who is the only W2 employee do you apply the W2 wages to "Officers Compensation" or to "salaries and Wages" which is the most correct?
Thank you.
- Mark as New
- Bookmark
- Subscribe
- Permalink
- Report Inappropriate Content
Officer compensation.
Slava Ukraini!
- Mark as New
- Bookmark
- Subscribe
- Permalink
- Report Inappropriate Content
"owners draw was approx 31K, should I apply at least a 15K distribution"
The IRS has the right to determine this was Attempting to avoid payroll taxes, and they can recharacterize this as payroll. And now the client is late with taxes, and will suffer penalties and interest.
Did they want to Fix 2019 payroll? Because it seems it should be $31,000 + $6,000 = $37,000? Unless you can show the person puts in very few business hours.
Don't yell at us; we're volunteers