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Level 6
December 7, 2019
Solved

Can a house owned for 3 years but on rent for 2 years (then sold) qualify for sale as residential home?

  • December 7, 2019
  • 3 replies
  • 21 views

Client bought a residential home in June 2016 , lived in it for 6 months and then gave on rent from 01/01/2017 until he sold it on 09/30/2019.

Can he now regard the sale as personal residential home and avoid the capital gain tax?

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Best answer by Just-Lisa-Now-

If they lived in it for 24 months out of the last 60 months before sale, it can qualify for IRC121, there will still be some depreciation to recapture from the time it was a rental though.

3 replies

George4Tacks
Level 15
December 7, 2019
Why did they only live there 6 months? Move? Divorce?  That may impact the answer.
Answers are easy. Questions are hard!
Accountant-Man
Level 13
December 7, 2019
No. You've answered it yourself. The law says owned AND lived in it for 24 months. They didn't,  so unless they moved for a certain specified reason for leaving, no exclusion.
** I am "Elevating with Intention!"
Just-Lisa-Now-
Intuit Community Champion
December 7, 2019

If they lived in it for 24 months out of the last 60 months before sale, it can qualify for IRC121, there will still be some depreciation to recapture from the time it was a rental though.

♪♫•*¨*•.¸¸♥Lisa♥¸¸.•*¨*•♫♪